The numbers of women who suffer from sexual problems–30-50% (depending upon the age) are discouraging (the higher incidence is seen in younger women). And remember, these numbers only include women who are psychologically distressed. If a woman avoids sex because of one of these problems but claims to not be bothered by the lack of sexual activity, then she’s not counted in these statistics. Is that really the best way to tabulate the incidence of a problem? Perhaps. But, suppose we didn’t count high cholesterol as a problem unless it bothered the patient with a heart attack? Is it possible that a woman just learns to tolerate less than optimal sexual activity (rather than Activating the Female Orgasm System) and so eventually does not consider the sexual condition to be a problem?